Navy MR Syllabus and Sample Question Paper


In this blog, the information related to Navy MR syllabus and Navy sample question paper will be discussed. As you know, the Indian Navy is a cognizant and cohesive armed force which is three-dimensional, efficient enough to operate above, on and below the surface of the ocean, thus protecting our national interests. The Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS), who holds the rank of Admiral, commands the Navy. He performs operational and administrative control of the Indian Navy from the Integrated Headquarters (IHQ) of the Ministry of Defense (Navy). The CNC is assisted by the Vice Chief of Naval Staff (VCNS) and three other chief officers, the Deputy Chief of the Naval Staff (DCNS), the Chief of Personnel (COP) and the Chief of Material (COM).

The Navy has three Commands, each one is headed by a Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief: –

The Navy has the following three Commands, each under the control of a Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief: –

  • The Eastern Naval Command (Headquarters at Visakhapatnam)
  • The Western Naval Command (Headquarters at Mumbai)
  • The Southern Naval Command (Headquarters at Kochi)

The Eastern and the Western Naval Commands are ‘Operational Commands’, and keep control over activities in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian sea respectively. The Southern Command is home to the flag officer sea training.

If you dream to join Indian Navy, then Indian Navy MR recruitment is an ideal opportunity. To apply, class 10 pass qualification is required.

Here is the information regarding Indian Navy Sailors for Navy MR Syllabus.Have a look at the below details of Indian Navy MR Syllabus before appearing the test.

Navy MR Syllabus



Indian Navy Sample Question Papers (MR)

 The Navy Sample Question Papers are very important. However, Indian Navy MR syllabus is equally important. You can go through the exam pattern available online. Download Indian Navy MR samples available on various websites and practice them. You will find all the essential questions in the navy sample question papers. Furthermore, they are also helpful in improving your time management skills. The Indian Navy sample question papers are the most useful tool for applicants to take a self-mock test to get the qualifying scores in the examination.

Sample Question Paper

Time: 45 Minutes

Marks: 50

Section A- Science and Arithmetic

Q1 – 10 labourers can make a wall in 8 days. How many men needed to finish the same task in half day?

(A) 80         (B) 100          (C) 120          (D) 160


Q2 – A dealer buys an article marked at Rs 25000 with 20% and 5 % off. He spends Rs 2000 on its repair and sells it 25000. What is his gain or loss percentage?

(A) 21% Loss          (B) 10.5%Loss          (C) 19.5%Gain          (D) 25%Gain


Q3 – A shopkeeper has 1000 Kg of sugar, portion of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He profits 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is:

(A) 500 Kg          (B) 600 Kg           (C) 400 Kg          (D) 640 Kg


Q4 – Find the mean of: 28, 24, 37, 42, 56, 59, 67, 28, 15, 32,

(A) 23.5          (B) 38.8           (C) 42.3          (D) 71.2


Q5 – The roots of the equation x2-8x+15=0 are

(A) 2,3          (B) 3,5           (C) 8,15          (D) 6,5


Q6 – The Ratio of length of each equal side and the third side of an isosceles triangle is 3:4. If the area of the triangle is 18√5sq units, the third side is:

(A) 8√2 units          (B) 12 units           (C) 16 units          (D) 5√10 unit


Q7 – Shantanu’s cap is in the form of a right circular cone of base radius 7 cm and height 24 cm. Find the area of the sheet required to make 5 such caps

(A) 5000 sq cm          (B) 2750sq Cm           (C) 3000sq cm          (D) 2700sq cc


Q8 – The minimum value of cos2x+sec2x is:

(A) 0          (B) 1           (C) 2          (D) 3


Q9 – The cost of 2 Sarees and 4 Shirts is Rs 16000 while 1 Saree and 6 Shirts cost the same. The cost of 12 Shirts is

(A) 12000          (B) 24000           (C) 48000          (D) None of the aabov


Q10 – The value of K for which kx+3y-k+3=0 and 12x+ky=k, have infinite solution is:

(A) 0          (B) -6           (C) 6          (D) 1


Q11 – Evaluate (2x+y)(2x-y)(4×2+y2)

(A) 16×4+2y4          (B) 16×4-y4           (C) 20×4+y 4         (D) 16×4-4y4


Q12 – If a2+b2=234 and ab=108, find the value of (a+b)/(a-b)

(A) 10          (B) 8           (C) 5          (D) 4


Q13 – Solve 2567/17*3=?+180

(A) 51          (B) 73           (C) 271          (D) 273


Q14 – Which of the following can’t be used to make a solar cell?

(A) Silicon          (B) Platinum           (C) Gallium          (D) GGermaniu


Q15 – Loudness or intensity of sound depends upon

(A) Application of Metal wire          (B) Amplitude of sound wave

(C) Area of vibrating body          (D) All of the above


Q16 – The SI unit of Electric charge is

(A) Volts(V)          (B) Ampere(A)           (C) Coulomb(C)        (D) Tesla(T)


Q17 – The enzyme used in the conversion of fructose into ethanol is:

(A) Zymase          (B) Invertase           (C) Diastase          (D) Fructose


Q18 – Which of the following is a measure of velocity?

(A) 30 s          (B) 30 South            (C) 30m/s          (D) 30m/s, South


Q19 – A thermos bottle containing coffee is vigorously shaken. If the coffee is considered as a system, then the temperature of coffee will:

(A) Increase        (B) Decrease           (C) Remain same          (D) Can’t SSa


Q20 – The Moon revolves around the Earth because the earth exerts a radical force on the moon. Does Earth perform work on the moon?

(A) No          (B) Yes, Sometimes           (C) Yes, always          (D) Can’t sa


Q21 – An object moving in (upward) direction opposite to the gravitational force of earth performs:

(A) Accelerated motion         (B) Motion with constant velocity

(C) Oscillations                         (D) Retarded motio


Q22 – The weight of the body would not be zero at:

(A) Earth’s center          (B) During free fall

(C) Space                          (D) Frictionless surface


Q23 – When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is (coulomb)

(A) 1019          (B) 1.6           (C) -1.6          (D) 10(q1/q2)


Q24 – A quasar is:

(A) Neutron star             (B) Black hole

(C) White dwarf              (D) Powerful source of radio radiation


Q25 – On heating, solid is directly converted into gaseous state. This process is called:

(A) Sublimation             (B) Evaporation

(C) Diffusion                   (D) Condensation


Section B – General Awareness

Q1 – Which is the biggest planet?

(A) Venus          (B) Mars           (C) Mercury          (D) Jupiter


Q2 – Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Veda period?

(A) Indra          (B) Vishnu           (C) Sun          (D) TTrimurt


Q3 – The greatest monument at Ellora, dating from the late 7th century, honours the Hindu God:

(A) Vishnu          (B) Shiva           (C) Ganesh          (D) KKrishn


Q4 – In which year was the Indian National Congress formed?

(A) 1835          (B) 1885           (C) 1901          (D) 1875


Q5 – National Highway No. 4 connects:

(A) Mumbai – Nagpur                  (B) Mumbai – Chennai

(C) Nagpur – Hyderabad           (D) Bangalore – Mysore


Q6 – The first electric train of India (Deccan Queen) was run between:

(A) Mumbai – Surat              (B) Howrah – Delhi

(C) Kalyan – Pune                  (D) New Delhi – CChenna


Q7 – The headquarters of Lalit Kala Academy are at:

(A) New Delhi          (B) Chandigarh           (C) Pune          (D) Kolkata


Q8 – Which of the following Indus valley sites is in Pakistan?

(A) Harappa          (B) Kalibagan           (C) Lothal          (D) Alamghir


Q9 – The violent uprising of palestinians against the Israeli occupation is called:

(A) Intifada          (B) Hezbollah            (C) PLO          (D) Hamas


Q10 – Who wrote the book titled ‘Runs and Ruins’?

(A) Kapil Dev                             (B) Imran Khan

(C) Sunil Gavaskar                    (D) None of these


Q11 – Lack of ___________ causes diabetes.

(A) Sugar          (B) Insulin           (C) Calcium           (D) Vitamins


Q12 – The country known as the ‘Land of the midnight sun’.

(A) Japan          (B) Sweden            (C) Norway           (D) Denmark


Q13 – The discovery of inert gases is associated with:

(A) J B Priestly          (B) Lavosier           (C) Cavendish          (D) Ramsay


Q14 – The heater element in an electric iron is made of:

(A) Nichrome          (B) Tungsten           (C) Copper          (D) Iron


Q15 – Capital of Manipur is:

(A) Shillong          (B) Imphal           (C) Gangtok          (D) Kohima


Q16 – The capital of Andaman and Nikobar Island is:

(A) Havlock          (B) Jollyboy           (C) Port Blair          (D) Ross


Q17 – FAO stands for

(A) Food and Agriculture Organisation          (B) Fruits and AgroOrganisation

(C) Fruit, Agriculture and Ocean                       (D) Fruits, Agro and OceRos


Q18 – In which of the following fields did Tenzing Norgay distinguish himself?

(A) Boxing          (B) Cycling           (C) Mountaineering          (D) Hockey


Q19 – Who among the following is known as ‘Fuehrer’?

(A) Stalin          (B) Lenin           (C) Hitler          (D) Bismarc


Q20 – The largest and the oldest museum of India is located in the state/Union Territory of:

(A) Andhra Pradesh             (B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) West Bengal                     (D) New Delhi


Q21 – The lengthiest classical epic is:

(A) Bhagwat Geeta                 (B) Ramayan

(C) Gita Govinda                      (D) Mahabharat


Q22 – The term ‘Derby’ is related to which of the following:

(A) Polo          (B) Swimming           (C) Racing          (D) Horse Riding


Q23 – With which game GeetSethi is associated?

(A) Basketball          (B) Chess           (C) Snooker           (D) Tennis


Q24 – Who is the first Indian to win the ‘International Grand Master’ title in chess?

(A) Anupama Abhayankar              (B) BhagyashreeTripathy

(C) Vishwanathan Anand                (D) D V Prasad


Q25 – In which Indian State did the game of Polo originate in?

(A) Manipur          (B) Rajasthan           (C) Gujarat          (D) West Bengal


Section A- Science and Arithmetic

  1. D
  2. C
  3. B
  4. B
  5. B
  6. B
  7. B
  8. C
  9. B
  10. C
  11. B
  12. C
  13. D
  14. B
  15. D
  16. C
  17. A
  18. D
  19. A
  20. A
  21. D
  22. A
  23. B
  24. D
  25. A

 Section B – General Awareness

  1. D
  2. A
  3. B
  4. B
  5. B
  6. C
  7. A
  8. A
  9. A
  10. C
  11. B
  12. C
  13. D
  14. A
  15. B
  16. C
  17. A
  18. C
  19. C
  20. C
  21. D
  22. D
  23. C
  24. C
  25. A

If you want to serve your country, you can be a part of Indian Navy. You will check online and in newspapers about the latest recruitment in Indian Navy. Hope this blog provides you will all the details regarding Navy MR syllabus and Navy sample question papers.

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